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Teacher Talk

transitive and intransitive

adventure22

Canada

Hello! I'm just going over some grammar because I am applying for a CELTA course. I wondered if someone would be able to help me?

Transitive Verbs: My grammar book says that:
The whole family went.
AND I have applied.

are intransitive. I can see that the object isn't in the sentence but surely the sentence would make no sense if the listener didn't know where the family went or what you applied to? So isn't the object implied in the context? Does this matter? I would want to say that properly intransitive verbs are like 'I slept' where there isn't an implied object. Where do you draw the line between transitive and intransitive?

07:03 PM Jul 09 2009 |

Go to the TOEFL® page >

ayhann

ayhann

Turkey

we also deal with the same issue in Turkish..a transitive verb refers to the question 'who' or 'what' and they have object(or it is called direct object in english,im not sure)

Mr.John arrested the burglar->Mr john arrested who:the burglar(to arrest is transitive here)

or give me the pen->give what:the pen

the intransitive verbs dont have an object and cannot be formed in passive voice:

the child cried for his mother:'to cry' has no object only indirect object 'mother' and it cannot be formed in passive here.if a verb doesnt have a direct object,we cannot make the sentence passive.

in you examples,the verbs have only indirect object but it must be a direct object for a verb to be transitive

An indirect object precedes the direct object and tells to whom,to where or for whom the action of the verb is done and who is receiving the direct object. There must be a direct object to have an indirect object. Indirect objects are usually found with verbs of giving or communicating like give, bring, tell, show, take, or offer. An indirect object is always a noun or pronoun which is not part of a prepositional phrase.

i hope it be useful:)

best of luck

09:59 PM Jul 09 2009 |

adventure22

Canada

Hey ayhann,

Thank you for the help! You are very knowledgeable! 

05:04 PM Jul 13 2009 |

nad1a

nad1a

Greece

it doesn't have to do with whether the object is implied or mentioned directly. it has to do with whether a certain sentence could exist with or without an object. 

there are verbs that can be both transitive and intransitive, that is they can be used both with or without an object.

take a look at the definition of go, for example:

it's defined as both tr. and intr.

so on your test you might be asked, if in xyz case 'go' is transitive or intransitive.

 

 

10:01 PM Jul 25 2009 |

ayhann

ayhann

Turkey

yes ,a verb can be transitive or intr according the type of object it implies.it is possible..i couldnt see anything conflicting with my definiinition..could you make more clear your def,please?

09:57 PM Sep 06 2009 |

Ferike333

Ferike333

Hungary

An object (either direct or indirect) is expressed by a noun without any prepositions.

I've done my homework.

but

I applied FOR the job. <—which makes job a kind of adverbs (at least in Hungarian but the same may go with English).

There are some verbs, after which two prepositionless nouns can stand. They are called ditransitive and they are for example:

I wish you a marry Xmas.

I gave you the pen.

in most of these cases you can paraphrase the sentence like: I gave my pen to you. and then only one object will remain. That's the direct one. As Ayhann metioned the indirect one is which is paraphrased as 'to' or 'for somebody' and usually refers to a person.

Hope I was clear, if not that's because I'm tired, so if you feel I wasn't just write me, sure I can explain it somehow.

Cheers,

Feri

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